Hi all:I thought this question deserved a thread all its own. I very much need to know the answer to this, as do all of us who are writing Alexander books, in my opinion...I take it Hammond did not say where he got the idea that Makedonians didn't hold slaves? Seems rather a large assertion to *not* footnote. Hmph. Certainly A's faux-pas with Dareios's kinswomen and the cloth is not enough evidence, because the womenfolk doing their own spinning/weaving and slave-holding are not mutually exclusive. Demosthenes' quote seems like evidence, but it is just one quote...So let me ask, what evidence is there that Makedonians *did* keep slaves? (Recognizing here that slavery, like sexuality

is a continuum also... a culture might have just a few slaves, with most of the joe-work being done by small-holders or employees... or it might exist on the backs of millions of slaves, as Rome did at least some of the time. Slavery might be limited to punishment, in the mines, for instance -- or else thoroughly interwoven into a society, with every family of any means owning at least one slave, who lives with the family, and so forth.)I don't count Alexander's selling defeated citizens into slavery as strong evidence -- because he is known to have taken on many non-Makedonian customs, and as I recall his father sold captives into slavery also -- was it not the standard practice of conquerors?Have to admit, the idea that Makedonians did *not* hold slaves has always seemed something of an anomaly to me, but one with great attraction I admit

... so I hope those with knowledge on this will share it and help settle the question in my mind.Love & peace,
Karen