Paralus wrote:I don't think that anyone asserts that the Macedonians repudiated their marriages immediately upon Alexander's death. I don't think there's too much doubt that they did so eventually though. These women – and their families – were still of some use but it is well to remember that these people were, now that Alexander was gone, a lower class – in every respect. It can be all too easy to overstate their importance in the scheme of things (just as to understate it).
The Persians well knew the sort of individuals they were dealing with: these blokes were as – if not more – ruthless than the departed invader. The subsequent events would demonstrate only too well just what lengths they would go to. The subject peoples – Iranians included – largely had little say in how they were used and abused. The demonstration of Peithon's slaughter of the Greeks will not have been lost on them nor would Perdiccas' "lustration" of the army. This is what they would visit upon their "own" to secure power.
Well, I'm not yet committed to any conclusion – rather I'm trying to understand whether the marriages
might have continued and worked within the context of the times. And I'm trying to the best of my ability to neither understate nor or overstate the importance – more an issue of throwing out hooks (in the form of a questions) and seeing what I may catch!
However, I'm not entirely happy assigning a blanket attitude to
all the Macedonians and therefore all the marriages. I recently read that there were either 20+ or 30+ major players in the immediate conflicts after Alexander's death. (And I am thoroughly irritated with myself for not recalling either the exact number or the source.) This leaves around 60 other marriages of Persian women to men whom, I’m sure, also had ambitions of their own. One question I ask is - even though they considered themselves
superior to the Persians, would they not have felt it advisable to keep both their wives and the loyalty of their Persian in-laws whilst all hell was breaking loose around them? And once things were relatively stable (some good few years later) might not those who survived have found no good reason to repudiate their wives at that point?
Paralus wrote:The real power – at this time – resided with Macedonians. The marriages of politico-military import were those to Macedonians. The Iranian marriages were “dynastic” links to an elite no longer in positions of real power. They were to atrophy further in the coming years: a bit like the Neanderthal branch of humanity; they led in a different direction.
Yes but not every groom was in a position to consider or be considered for a politico-military important marriage within the Macedonian elite. We know of the back and forth marriage offers and negotiations amongst this elite, but once the Macedonian women were out of play who was left of sufficient importance for the other grooms to fight over? This could mean, surely, that the dynastic links to the
Persian elite still had
some desirability? What would have been of greater value to those other 70-80+ men still living and fighting in Persia – a marriage to a prominent female of the Persian dynasty or a marriage into the not-so-high-elite family of someone fighting alongside you? Or opposite you? Or in Macedonia itself?
You also said above that
'The subject peoples – Iranians included – largely had little say in how they were used and abused.' I do see your point but I have further thoughts on this. For instance, whilst the Macedonians were fighting each other for hierarchal position they still had to administer the territories which they had been assigned (or, for the lesser characters, protect their own situation in Asia). Even though there were always a few Macedonians left in charge, the majority of the fighting force was needed elsewhere. Therefore wouldn't the
cooperation of the Persians have been of SOME importance to them? And wouldn't relationships to various Persians by marriage have guaranteed that cooperation? Seleucus was one who certainly thought so. Even though his feelings towards the Persians are recorded in the early histories (of Alexander) because they supposedly contrast with most of the Macedonians, I do wonder if we learn of this only because he survived long enough and was successful enough to establish his own empire. Can we categorically state that none of the other ninety or so grooms had a similar attitude towards the Persians? I think I said this in an earlier post, but it bears repeating: Could it not be that we don’t hear about them in this respect simply because they either didn't survive or were not successful enough to leave their mark in the histories?
Repeating a quote:
Paralus wrote:I don't think that anyone asserts that the Macedonians repudiated their marriages immediately upon Alexander's death. I don't think there's too much doubt that they did so eventually though.
Well, Brunt's footnote to the marriages (in the Loeb edition of Arrian), after mentioning Apame, says only that 'No other marriage is known to have lasted; some certainly did not.' I have, however, seen the assumption elsewhere that because none of the marriages is known (i.e., on record) to have lasted then there must have been a mass repudiation that compares with the mass marriages. Correct me if I'm wrong, but I don't think there's a direct reference in any of the sources to this effect, yet many of our modern authors are insistent.
Peter Green says: ‘Nor did the marriages themselves have the effect which Alexander hoped to achieve. They had been made willy-nilly, at the king's express command, and almost all of them were repudiated soon after his death.'
Hamilton tells us that 'most them made haste to rid themselves of their Persian wives at his death.' Although
Tarn does point out that 'many of the bridegrooms were soon to die' he also says that 'many others repudiated their Asiatic wives after Alexander’s death.' Even
Maxwell O'Brien says 'it seems that all of them, with the exception of Seleucus, discarded their Asiatic wives.' (O'Brien at least qualifies his statement!)
Although
Bosworth rightly notes that 'apart from Seleucus' wife, Apame, none of the Persian ladies is recorded playing any role in the age of the Successors', a little earlier he states without reservation that 'the unions did not last.' My opinion here is that unless we should EXPECT to hear about the Persian women during the age of the Successors then the
silence in the sources does not support a categorical statement that the unions did not last. Unless a Persian woman was exceptional or extremely prominent - along with her Macedonian husband - it's unlikely that any of the ancient authors would have found her worthy of record. For instance, should Seleucus have been killed before securing his kingdom I truly doubt that there would have been any further record of Apame. It's because of her husband’s achievements that she was considered worthy of mention – she was the mother of Antiochus and Seleucus founded three cities in her name. Now I agree that the wives of Antigonus (if he was indeed given one), Lysimachus, Peucestas, Ptolemy, etc. would very likely have found their way into the histories had the marriages survived. However, I don't believe the historians had any interest at all in the wives of Macedonians 20 through 92 (or 10 through 22 – pick a spread). It seems that even the marriages themselves weren't all that worthy of note except for the spectacle involved. We don't even know the names of over eighty of the Macedonians so why should we expect to hear about their wives during the age of the Successors? The women are hardly likely to have achieved more lasting fame than their husbands. And, as we all know well, ancient historians showed little interest in Persian men let alone Persian women. After Alexander Persian men feature only when they were involved in a battle or lost their satrapy, etc. Not one ancient source thought it even worthy of recording what happened to Darius' young son, Ochus. There's even less interest in the Persians after the death of Alexander than there was before!
My argument does not apply only to Bosworth's statement, of course. I think it is likely that all others who state that the marriages didn't last are applying the same criteria, but Bosworths wording best afforded me the opportunity to make the above response.
(I was also going to add a comment (or three

) about the social and cultural aspects of the dowries but it would probably distract at this point.)
Best regards,