Ancient terms from Homer for "King"
Posted: Tue Apr 10, 2012 8:53 pm
This is a bit of a confusing subject for me and I'm posting here hoping someone might be able to help me with this. I have read in other posts on Pothos that there was no real Greek term for "king" when Alexander and Philip were alive. However, in some reading, specifically, The Trojan War, a New History, by Barrry Strauss, Simon & Schuster, 2006, in Chapter Two: that Homer uses the term or title anax for Agememnon which Strauss says goes back to the Bronze Age term for king: wanax. Strauss further states that the term basileis would be used as such: "the rest of the territory was run by local big men or basileis, each no dobut with his own armed followers."
My question is are we talking Linear B here with reference to Homer's usage of the terms anax and basileis? I understand Linear B was the precusor to the Greek of the classical world or thereabouts. My understanding (and it may be in error) is that by Alexander's time the term basileis (my spelling may be incorrect, I apologize) was used to indicate one in power or as might be equated with a ruler. Of course, I understand that the Greek language developed consideraby between Homer's time and Alexander's in various ways. I'm in no way anything but a real novice on the Greek language, ancient or modern. What I'm curious about is exactly how rulers in Alexander's time were addressed. If in Bronze Age time they were addressed possibly as anax then what caused the jump from anax to basileis in Alexander's day? If in fact there was such a jump in the development of the meaning of these terms. I may also be completely off base here, that's why I'm asking if someone might know.
I realize this may seem really obscure and nitpicky, but it's something I'm curious about as I'm trying to get a better understanding of how the Macedonians of Alexander's time might have used terms to denote their rulers especially if they were more Homeric in thier leanings than the rest of Greece, well, primarily the South, Attica, etc.
Any help is appreciated.
Thanks, Lysis
My question is are we talking Linear B here with reference to Homer's usage of the terms anax and basileis? I understand Linear B was the precusor to the Greek of the classical world or thereabouts. My understanding (and it may be in error) is that by Alexander's time the term basileis (my spelling may be incorrect, I apologize) was used to indicate one in power or as might be equated with a ruler. Of course, I understand that the Greek language developed consideraby between Homer's time and Alexander's in various ways. I'm in no way anything but a real novice on the Greek language, ancient or modern. What I'm curious about is exactly how rulers in Alexander's time were addressed. If in Bronze Age time they were addressed possibly as anax then what caused the jump from anax to basileis in Alexander's day? If in fact there was such a jump in the development of the meaning of these terms. I may also be completely off base here, that's why I'm asking if someone might know.
I realize this may seem really obscure and nitpicky, but it's something I'm curious about as I'm trying to get a better understanding of how the Macedonians of Alexander's time might have used terms to denote their rulers especially if they were more Homeric in thier leanings than the rest of Greece, well, primarily the South, Attica, etc.
Any help is appreciated.
Thanks, Lysis