Could Darius III have been killed by Alexander III?
Posted: Sat Nov 12, 2011 5:54 pm
Hi to all Pothosians.
The title is self-explanatory.
... Either directly by the Macedonians or indirectly by a tricked Bessus.
And Bessus be blamed as a convenient scapegoat.
Analogous to the case of the Aztec tlatoani Moctezuma according to some Mesoamerican chroniclers (like Ixtixochitl).
Cortes also pretended to conveniently "avenge" the late Moctezuma
After all, Alexandros III had previously directly accused Darius of killing the former's own father Philip II, no less.
The trial and inevitable execution of Darius III seems to have been the obvious goal of hunting the defeated Persian king all along the central satrapies.
On the other hand, Alexander presenting himself as the savior of the Persian Empire from an unlawful usurper instead of any fearful alien conqueror seems like a brilliant (even if a bit naive & crystal clear) political maneuver.
I know all relevant sources stated otherwise; but all relevant sources were from the conqueror's standpoint.
And frankly, from where I am the possibility seems too obvious for being ignored, even if just as a conjecture.
What do you think? Any input will be highly welcomed. Thanks in advance.
Best regards,
A. M0n0phthalm0s
The title is self-explanatory.
... Either directly by the Macedonians or indirectly by a tricked Bessus.
And Bessus be blamed as a convenient scapegoat.
Analogous to the case of the Aztec tlatoani Moctezuma according to some Mesoamerican chroniclers (like Ixtixochitl).
Cortes also pretended to conveniently "avenge" the late Moctezuma
After all, Alexandros III had previously directly accused Darius of killing the former's own father Philip II, no less.
The trial and inevitable execution of Darius III seems to have been the obvious goal of hunting the defeated Persian king all along the central satrapies.
On the other hand, Alexander presenting himself as the savior of the Persian Empire from an unlawful usurper instead of any fearful alien conqueror seems like a brilliant (even if a bit naive & crystal clear) political maneuver.
I know all relevant sources stated otherwise; but all relevant sources were from the conqueror's standpoint.
And frankly, from where I am the possibility seems too obvious for being ignored, even if just as a conjecture.
What do you think? Any input will be highly welcomed. Thanks in advance.
Best regards,
A. M0n0phthalm0s