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Again i am posting some information to show origin of Greek culture and langwage to be derived from the original Aryan prehistoric tongue. Altough i know i am not refering to Alexander. I do stress that much of Greek culture and langwage is derived from the ancient Aryans.http://pchome.grm.hia.no/~fsaljoug/migrations.htmAryan or Indo-European is the general name given to the people thought to be originated from the steppe of central and southern Asia. Around 4000-3000 BC., these peopel started to emigrate to the warmer places in the south or west. Most scholars think of this as the beginning of the distinction between Indo-European tribes. Tribes who emigrated to the west became the ancestors of Germans, Slavs, Greeks, Latins, and probably Celts. People who chose the south as their destination came to be known as Indo-Iranians. There are also a rather small group of people who most likely chose not to participate in this great migration. These later entered the pages of history as Scythians and Sarmatians, although they are also believed to be nomadic Indo-Iranians since their language and customes are closely tide to the Ancient Persians.There are scholary arguments going on for a long time about the truth of the theory of Indo-Europeans, whether this migration really happened or not, and whether these people are infact related. Reasons presented to support this theory are based on language and cultural evidence. Linguistic studies suggest close similarities between the ancient forms of modern Indo-European languages, in their grammar and in their vocabulary structure. Many words still in use are alike, and many others are the changed forms of similar ancient forms. Cultural background also provide basis for this theory, horse breeding, similar agricultural methods, strong fighting abilities, similar religious beliefs and mythological superstitions seem to suggest that all this started from a common background, probably from a time when all these people were the same. Today, the most wide spread theory specifies the people of Europe (with the exceptions of Estonians, Finns, and magyars), Iran, and Indian subcontinent to belong to a common, Indo-European background. Until a strong argument proves otherwise, we shall undertake this theory as the closest thing to the truth.4000-3000 BC is the aproximate date for the migration of Indo-Iranian tribes from their Central Asian settlement, however, recent Archaeological,and Anthropological dis

are you referring to ancient greek culture?'much' of greek language and culture is derived from these people you mention? can you please elaborate with evidence and comaparative analysis.the greeks were unique in their language and culture, an advanced unique peoples.

Well as far as my sorces for this information i really mostly on the interent. I will do some more research and see what i can come up with and post more latter.

Well it seems the exact date of the migration may be somewhat a mystery. There are also other problems concerning the race and appearance of the Aryans. Western historians beleave that the Aryans are from Eastern Europe or Western Asia(Caucase Mountains). Yet others believe that Aryans are from the large area which begins on the north eastern coast of the Caspian Sea and ends near Western border of Neapal.
There is even another belief that Aryans are actually related to Indian people who migrated to the West (but to me this theory seems hard to believe seeing that the climate of India is hot and humid, and because of this Aryan people would have dark skin not light skin)To me one thing is Clear, the word "Aryan" means "Noble Man" and the name of the country of Iran is derieved from either the word Aryan or the word Aryan Veijo (New Aryan homeland). Another thing most people outside of Iran do not know is that the word "Persia" is a word that was created not by Iranians but by outsiders (Most likly Greeks or Babylonians or Assyrians). Iranians have called them selves Iranians even before the word Persian was given to us. It is even possible that the migration took place more then once over a large span of time mostlikly hundreds of years.Another thing that is important to understand is that when the Aryans settled in Europe and India they mostly seem to have done it peacefully.Continued

Yet when the Aryans settled in the Iranian Platue it seems to be a completely different story. It seems in the Iranian platue these new migrants first accquired jobs as warriors since they had many skills that the Indiginous people of the area did not. These People were most likly Lures and Elamites.The Aryans knew many skills and these included 1.Horse breeding 2.The knowlegde of how to forge iron and create iron weapons.The Aryans seem to have reproduced faster then the indiginous people of the area. Continued..

Since the Aryans reproduced faster they slowly began to take control of the land. Infact it seems that they forcebly pushed out the these people and this often caused battles to take place. I know this because in Iran there are storys of Aryans having to fight Deavs(this word means Devils and infact seems to be where the word devil originates).Proof that the Aryans in Iran did not mix much with the indiginous tribes is seen in the perecentage of ethnic Persian/Aryans in Iran which is over 70% the rest of the people are mostly decendents of Greeks, Arabs, Turkaman(decendents of Ghengis Khan and his soldiers) and a few others.Continued....

these postings do not refer to the greek langauge and culture being influenced by the aryan peoples as you initially posted.your posts simply discuss the theory that europeans and early inhabitants of the greek and european mainland came from the aryan people. which might be true?

Interesting post, even though I don't agree completely with you. I think it's a bit strong to say that Greek culture is derived from the "ancient Aryans". The origins of Greek civilization are obscure to historians, archeologists and linguists alike. Greek-speaking people may have come to the area we know today as Greece during the Indo-European migration, they might not have. We don't know this. We know that Greek language is certainly related to other languages from the family we call Indo-European, but this is not the same as saying that the Greek people had anything in particular to do with the Aryans.Another thing is that Aryan and Indo-European isn't the same thing. Sometime shortly after the decline of the Harappan civilization, a people _who called themselves_ Aryans and spoke a sort of early Sanskrit, i.e. an Indo-European language, (which is closely related to ancient Persian, I know) moved to India. Aryan, as you say, mean "noble" or "pure", and has the same root as Iran or Eire, which just goes to show the width of the migration. Also, as you point out, the exact date of this migration is a mystery - mainly because it's not a question of one specific event. More likely it's something that happened gradually over a long period of time, by a collection of tribes, which is also the reason the Aryans settled peacefully. They didn't march to India with an army, and their domination over certain parts only happened over a few centuries. The migration we talk about was definetly not an over-the-night sort of thing.I wouldn't say that having words and cultural aspects in common necessarily suggests blood relation. Languages always intermingle when people move about, trade and meet. Much the same way that Alexander spread Greek ideas around his empire (trying to make it slightly less off-topic).

Hey i found a picture of a old Celtic/Aryan symbol for the sun or fire. It was found on a bowl which was discovered in Athens and is dated to around 800 B.C.. Scrole down almost all the way to the bottem to find it.http://library.flawlesslogic.com/concept.htm