Re: Differences and practices of love
Posted: Tue Oct 25, 2005 5:47 am
***Ok,i have mentioned Plutarch's work in the past too .I donGÇÖt take it as a bible. But why would that man lie when he talked about "non sexual behaviours" and no body contacts between lovers?***And why does Plutarch suggest that the reason a Roman man first approaches his wife in the dark is because: (a) sex involves 'aidos' or shame; (b) a wife is an GÇÿoutsiderGÇÖ; (c) the female body may be offensive; (d) sex is bad whether inside or outside marriage? Perhaps the answer to your question is because Plutarch was a bit of a prig when it came to sex with either gender! See 'Plutarch on Sex' by Peter Walcot, Greece and Rome, 2nd ser., Vol. 45, No. 2 )OCt., 1998), 166-187.***Because being a politician in Athens and having homoerotic relationships did not mix. Penalty was death.***I think IGÇÖm going to regret this, but can I please have a list of the politicians who were put to death for having homoerotic relationships?***Just look into the past and greece's history. From the byzantine years until modern years.***Sorry, but GreeceGÇÖs history from the Byzantine years onwards has no relevance whatsoever to this topic.Best regards,Amyntoros