Paralus wrote:
And we can proceed from here. You fail to see my use of "moniker". Alexander I "Philhelene" is an epithet: a descriptive accorded to him as was "saviour" (soter) et al to other kings. The fact is that Hellenes - such as Themistocles, or Agesilaos - are never accorded these epithets. Only the Macedonian (barbaroi) king is.
As an example, can you please indicate the source which states that Agesilaos was called "Agesilaos Philhellene"?
And you fail to see that your underlying argument is faulty. You are basically simply saying that a Hellene could not have the epithet "Philhellene", that only (as you put it) a "barbarian" could, but that is simply wrong. To do this, you have to prove that it was unheard of, or inconceivable for a Hellene to be potentially called a "Philhellene". It is not enough to say that just because Alexander had the epithet "Philhellene" that he was a "barbarian" by assumption. To put as an example, to the best of my knowledge there were only one each of Ptolemy "Philadelphus" or "Philometor" or "Euregetes", but I am sure there was more than one of the Ptolemies that loved their brother, or mother, or were a benefactor to someone. I can only recall one "The Just" but I am sure there had to be more than one that could have got that one, maybe Timoleon? I could also say that poor Philip II, or Themistocles, or Miltiades, or Epaminondas never got the good old "Great" tag to stick (or Caesar for that matter?) but I could certainly build a plausible case that they were pretty "Great". You can argue that Alexander was a "barbaroi" for a variety of other reasons, although we are definitely now treading in taboo waters as far as this forum's rules go, but I don't believe you can do it based on your current argument.
I will share a couple of examples that I believe pretty clearly show that not only was it entirely conceivable in Greek culture and consciousness, it was downright laudatory for a Greek to be a "Philhellene":
Regarding Agesilaus (I never said he had the epithet) Xenophon is very clearly talking about his hero here. I include the original Greek so you can clearly see that I am not misappropriating the "Philhellene" (if you can't read Greek my apologies but the translation follows):
"[4] εἴ γε μὴν αὖ
Ἕλληνα ὄντα φιλέλληνα εἶναι, τίνα τις οἶδεν ἄλλον στρατηγὸν ἢ πόλιν οὐκ ἐθέλοντα αἱρεῖν, ὅταν οἴηται πορθήσειν, ἢ συμφορὰν νομίζοντα τὸ νικᾶν ἐν τῷ πρὸς Ἕλληνας πολέμῳ;
Again,
if it is honourable in one who is a Greek to be a friend to the Greeks, what other general (Agesilaus) has the world seen unwilling to take a city when he thought that it would be sacked, or who looked on victory in a war against Greeks as a disaster?"
Xenophon, Agesilaos 7.4
Also:
οὐκοῦν καὶ ἀγαθοί τε καὶ ἥμεροι ἔσονται; σφόδρα γε.
ἀλλ᾽ οὐ φιλέλληνες; οὐδὲ οἰκείαν τὴν Ἑλλάδα ἡγήσονται, οὐδὲ κοινωνήσουσιν ὧνπερ οἱ ἄλλοι ἱερῶν; καὶ σφόδρα γε.
“Will they then not be good and gentle?” “Indeed they will.”
And won't they be philhellenes, lovers of Greeks, and will they not regard all Greece as their own and not renounce their part in the holy places common to all Greeks ?” “Most certainly.”
Plato, Republic 5.47
I could go on, but I don't really believe it can honestly be denied that for a Greek to be a "Philhellene" was at the very least extremely conceivable and most likely as well an entrenched and lauded honour in ancient Greek culture. Therefore, I continue to maintain that Alexander I the "Philhellene" was very appropriately given his moniker "The Patriot" given his deeds and reputation, and I further believe that the burden of proof falls on you to show that he was a "Philhellene" only, and only, because he was a "barbarian". Simply saying that because no other Greek got a similar moniker, is as saying that because no other Greek got the epithet "The Effiminate" does not mean there weren't any.