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amyntoros wrote:One little note on Macedonian pronunciation - the only one I know of, although there could be others in more obscure sources.
Plutarch’s Moralia. Volume IV. 292 E. (The Greek Questions.)
The month “Bysios,” as many think, is the month of growth (physios); for it begins the spring and during it many plants spring up and come into bloom. But this is not the truth of the matter, for Delphinians do not use b in place of ph (as Macedonians do who say “Bilip” and “balacros” and “Beronice”), but in place of p; thus they naturally say “broceed” for “proceed” and “bainful” for “painful.”
Could this mean that Beronice was originally written as Pheronice? And that the Macedonians pronounced Hephaistion as Hebaistion? And what about "King Bilip"?
Best regards,
Also, Didymos, who also cites a Homeric example of the "b" in place of "phi":
agesilaos wrote:The Greeks did not accept the Macedonians as Hellenes but only the Temenid/Argaead Royal Family which is why there are only the two Olympic Victories Alexander I in the foot-race (probably before the Persian invasion) and Philip II's horses which coincided with Alexander's birth and was celebrated on the coinage.
Well, the Greeks did in fact, or at least the judges at the Olympics, accept a Macedonian at the Games. Yes, Alexander did claim the highest lineage descended from Heracles no less, but that is easily explained by him exalting and glorifying his own personal Royal status, a heroic claim exclusive to him and his family, and one that not many, if any at all, could claim. I suppose if one of the Spartan Kings showed up to personally participate, they may have done the same. It does not also automatically imply that he would not have been included if he was not a Temenid/Argead, as it is well established in Herodotus and elsewhere that Alexander was a Macedonian and was referred to as a Macedonian, which I can cite if needed. I also believe Archelaus was also an Olympic victor, which of course is another royal figure, however you are reading to much into this. Perhaps only the Royals had the means to train or fund an Olympic participation and perhaps until the demise of the Argeads it was not apropo for a Macedonian to participate in the Olympic Games if they were not of royal status. Perhaps they were not simply good enough to win at the games. After all it's winners not participants that are recorded, with very few exceptions such as finalists in a memorable event such as the Pankration. All we know for sure is that Macedonians prior to Philip's conquest of Greece (and Philip himself) did win at the Games, ergo they participated.
